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NEW QUESTION # 14
Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)
- A. Incident impact analysis
- B. Improved application development
- C. Periodic firewall updates
- D. Proactive threat hunting
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Managed Detection and Response (MDR) services combine incident impact analysis and proactive threat hunting to enhance organizational security posture. Incident impact analysis assesses the severity, scope, and potential damage of identified threats, helping prioritize responses. Proactive threat hunting involves skilled analysts searching for hidden threats that automated detection may miss, leveraging threat intelligence and behavioral analytics. Palo Alto Networks' MDR integrates Cortex XDR and human expertise to detect, investigate, and remediate sophisticated threats early. Unlike routine firewall updates or development processes, MDR is focused on active threat discovery and comprehensive incident management.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?
- A. Data security
- B. Asset inventory
- C. Workload security
- D. Configuration assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud-Native Security Platform (CNSP) focuses on protecting VMs, containers, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime. It ensures that workloads remain secure by monitoring behavior, enforcing policies, and detecting threats in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?
- A. SaaS security
- B. Container security
- C. Network security
- D. Code security
Answer: D
Explanation:
Code security focuses on identifying vulnerabilities and misconfigurations early in the development process. It uses tools like static code analysis and infrastructure-as-code (IaC) scanning to ensure secure coding and configuration before deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?
- A. Authentication as a Service
- B. Function as a Service (FaaS)
- C. Security as a Service (SaaS)
- D. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Serverless architecture is primarily implemented through Function as a Service (FaaS), where developers write and deploy individual functions without managing the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider handles scaling, resource allocation, and execution on demand.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
- A. Xpanse
- B. SIM
- C. IAM
- D. IIDP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Xpanse is a tool from Palo Alto Networks that provides attack surface management by analyzing exposed services and internet-facing assets, giving security operations teams visibility into environmental risks and helping prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which statement describes advanced malware?
- A. It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.
- B. It can operate without consuming resources.
- C. It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.
- D. It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Advanced malware employs sophisticated techniques such as polymorphism, encryption, and stealth to evade detection by traditional signature-based tools. It adapts to different environments, modifies its code to avoid static analysis, and maintains persistence through obfuscation and anti-forensic measures. Palo Alto Networks' threat prevention technologies use machine learning, behavior analysis, and sandboxing to detect these evasive malware strains. Such adaptive capabilities distinguish advanced malware from simpler threats that are easily identified and removed, underscoring the need for modern, layered security controls capable of dynamic threat detection.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?
- A. Virtual
- B. Containerized
- C. Physical
- D. Cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
A physical firewall is ideal for environments like a company headquarters that require redundant power, high throughput, and dedicated hardware for maximum reliability and performance. It supports more robust failover and scalability compared to virtual or containerized options.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?
- A. Prisma Access
- B. Service connection
- C. Digital experience management
- D. Prisma Cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
Prisma Access is a cloud-delivered security platform that provides policy enforcement, secure access, and threat prevention for mobile users and remote networks, ensuring consistent security regardless of location.
NEW QUESTION # 22
What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?
- A. Traffic shaping
- B. DHCP markings
- C. Port translation
- D. Decryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Decryption is required to inspect TLS-encrypted traffic, allowing security tools (such as firewalls or intrusion prevention systems) to analyze the contents of the traffic for threats that would otherwise remain hidden within encrypted sessions.
NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the purpose of host-based architectures?
- A. They share the work of both clients and servers.
- B. They allow client computers to perform most of the work.
- C. They divide responsibilities among clients.
- D. They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a host-based architecture, the server (host) handles all processing tasks, while the client mainly provides input/output. This centralizes control, processing, and data storage on the server, reducing the client's role to that of a terminal.
NEW QUESTION # 24
What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?
- A. It reveals malware within web-based traffic.
- B. It applies to unknown threat detection only.
- C. It identifies loT devices on the internet.
- D. It protects users from social engineering.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSL/TLS decryption allows security tools to inspect encrypted traffic, enabling them to detect hidden malware, command-and-control communication, or data exfiltration that would otherwise bypass inspection if left encrypted.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
- A. To secure public cloud infrastructures only
- B. To secure serverless functions across the application
- C. To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors
- D. To provide automation for application creation in the cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP) is designed to secure containers, VMs, and serverless functions throughout the entire application lifecycle - from development to runtime - by detecting and blocking vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and runtime threats.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?
- A. EDR
- B. DLP
- C. IDS
- D. SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) technologies provide comprehensive visibility and real-time threat prevention directly on endpoint devices. EDR continuously monitors process activities, file executions, and system calls to detect malware, suspicious behaviors, and zero-day threats at the source. Palo Alto Networks' Cortex XDR platform exemplifies this by correlating endpoint telemetry with network and cloud data to provide a holistic defense against attacks. Operating locally on endpoints allows EDR to prevent lateral movement and respond to threats quickly, filling security gaps that network-centric tools alone cannot address. This endpoint-level insight is critical to identifying sophisticated threats that initiate or manifest on user devices.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?
- A. DNS Security
- B. URL filtering
- C. DLP
- D. CASB
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) secures SaaS applications and network data by providing visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance enforcement. It acts as a control point between users and cloud service providers to enforce security policies.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?
- A. Serverless
- B. Kubernetes
- C. Dockers
- D. Cloud-hosted
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud-hosted refers to the deployment of traditional on-premises software on cloud-based servers. This approach allows organizations to run their applications in the cloud without re-architecting them for cloud-native environments.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)
- A. It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.
- B. It requires samples lo be buffered
- C. It only uses packet header information.
- D. It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Signature-based systems struggle with polymorphic or obfuscated malware, which changes its code to avoid detection. Signature-based detection relies on static databases of known threat signatures, limiting its ability to identify new or unknown threats.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
- A. Resource development
- B. Credential access
- C. Lateral movement
- D. Account discovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Account discovery is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework under the Discovery tactic. It involves adversaries attempting to identify user accounts on a system or network.
Credential access, lateral movement, and resource development are tactics - high-level objectives an attacker is trying to achieve.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?
- A. DNS Security
- B. URL filtering
- C. Application allow list
- D. Dynamic access control
Answer: C
Explanation:
An application allow list prevents malware from executing by only permitting approved applications to run on an endpoint. Any unauthorized or unknown software, including malicious programs, is automatically blocked from executing.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?
- A. Persistence
- B. Privilege escalation
- C. Impact
- D. Data exfiltration
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Privilege Escalation tactic in the MITRE ATT&CK framework involves techniques used by attackers to gain higher-level permissions on a system or network, allowing greater access to internal servers and sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
- A. Alerts for new code introduction
- B. Integration with threat feeds
- C. Real-time protection from threats
- D. Continuous monitoring of resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM), including Prisma Cloud's offering, continuously monitors all cloud resources - such as compute instances, storage, network configurations, and identities - to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potential threats in near real time.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?
- A. Serverless function
- B. Docker container
- C. API
- D. Hypervisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
A serverless function is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure, typically as part of a Function as a Service (FaaS) model. It is executed in response to events such as HTTP requests or database changes, and the cloud provider handles the underlying infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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PCCP Braindumps Real Exam Updated on Dec 23, 2025 with 72 Questions: https://troytec.itpassleader.com/Palo-Alto-Networks/PCCP-dumps-pass-exam.html