(2024) SY0-701 Exam Dumps, Practice Test Questions BUNDLE PACK
CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-701 Sample Questions Reliable
NEW QUESTION # 60
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO's report?
- A. Insider threat
- B. Organized crime
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Nation-state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1
NEW QUESTION # 61
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents.
Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
- A. Review the documents' data classification policy.
- B. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
- C. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
- D. Set the maximum data retention policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2841. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2842.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
- A. Host-based firewall
- B. Application allow list
- C. Least privilege
- D. System isolation
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are authorized to run on a system and blocks all other applications. An application allow list can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system because it prevents the execution of any unauthorized or malicious software, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, or spyware. An application allow list can also reduce the attack surface and improve the performance of the system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 551 1
NEW QUESTION # 63
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network.
Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A. Routing protocols
- B. Console access
- C. VLANs
- D. Web-based administration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods.
Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router's settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF).
Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router's Security Stinks: Here's How to Fix It
NEW QUESTION # 64
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
- A. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0
0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32
0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - D. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25
32 port 53
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28:
Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Steganography
- B. Salting
- C. Key stretching
- D. Data masking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords fromproducing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References =
* Passwords technical overview
* Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
* Salt (cryptography)
NEW QUESTION # 66
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?
- A. Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
- B. Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
- C. Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
- D. Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page
372-373
NEW QUESTION # 67
An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
- A. SD-WAN
- B. WAF
- C. NGFW
- D. TLS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. Compensating control
- B. Network segmentation
- C. SNMP traps
- D. Transfer of risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following is aprimarysecurity concern for a company setting up a BYOD program?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. End of life
- C. VM escape
- D. Jailbreaking
Answer: D
Explanation:
Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer's or the carrier's restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software. Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company's security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page
76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.
NEW QUESTION # 70
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
- A. Input validation
- B. Code debugging
- C. Identify embedded keys
- D. Static code analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.
Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.
NEW QUESTION # 71
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
- A. Secured zones
- B. Adaptive identity
- C. Threat scope reduction
- D. Subject role
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secured zones are a key component of the Zero Trust data plane, which is the layer where data is stored, processed, and transmitted. Secured zones are logical or physical segments of the network that isolate data and resources based on their sensitivity and risk. Secured zones enforce granular policies and controls to prevent unauthorized access and lateral movement within the network1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 255.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
- A. RADIUS
- B. Load balancer
- C. HSM
- D. Jump server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =
* How to access a remote server using a jump host
* Jump server
* RADIUS
* Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
* Hardware Security Module (HSM)
* [What is an HSM?]
* [Load balancing (computing)]
* [What is Load Balancing?]
NEW QUESTION # 73
A hacker gained access to a system via a phishing attempt that was a direct result of a user clicking a suspicious link. The link laterally deployed ransomware, which laid dormant for multiple weeks, across the network. Which of the following would have mitigated the spread?
- A. WAF
- B. IDS
- C. UAT
- D. IPS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
IPS stands for intrusion prevention system, which is a network security device that monitors and blocks malicious traffic in real time. IPS is different from IDS, which only detects and alerts on malicious traffic, but does not block it. IPS would have mitigated the spread of ransomware by preventing the hacker from accessing the system via the phishing link, or by stopping the ransomware from communicating with its command and control server or encrypting the files.
NEW QUESTION # 74
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users' passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
- A. Multifactor authentication
- B. Permissions assignment
- C. Access management
- D. Password complexity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user's password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication.
Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user's role or identity. Access management is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2 Multi-factor Authentication - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4 CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. Race condition
- C. SQL injection
- D. VM escape
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
- A. Containers
- B. RTOS
- C. SCADA
- D. Embedded systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1
NEW QUESTION # 77
A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactor authentication that uses:
. Something you know
. Something you have
. Something you are
Which of the following would accomplish the manager's goal?
- A. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure
- B. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup
- C. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
- D. Password, authentication token, thumbprint
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager's goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.
Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a security question. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12 Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12 Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user's identity to access a VPN12 References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 177 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4:
Identity and Access Management, page 179
NEW QUESTION # 78
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Web serverBotnetEnable DDoS protectionUserRATImplement a host-based IPSDatabase server WormChange the default application passwordExecutiveKeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication BackdoorImplement 2FA using push notification A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
- A. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
- B. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.
- C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
- D. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.
In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.
Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company's email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -
2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy
NEW QUESTION # 80
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?
- A. Hardening
- B. Least privilege
- C. Configuration enforcement
- D. Employee monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices.
However, it is rarely implemented in practice.
In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.
The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers' activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.
References =
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege
NEW QUESTION # 81
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
- A. Risk transfer
- B. Segmentation
- C. Exception
- D. Compensating controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks bydisabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29
Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1
NEW QUESTION # 82
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure.
Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?
- A. Critical
- B. Sensitive
- C. Private
- D. Public
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization's operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks.
Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?
- A. ARO
- B. IMTTR
- C. MTBF
- D. RTO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy.
The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable.
IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component.
MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97-98; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.2 - Risk Management, 0:00 - 3:00.
NEW QUESTION # 84
One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
- A. Operating system
- B. Application
- C. Virtualization
- D. Firmware
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
NEW QUESTION # 85
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